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November 04, 2006

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-Domokun-

Equality, in the second clause of #69, in countries where the government don't recognize religious wedding ceremonies, LDS are allowed to have a civil ceremony preceding the temple sealing without the one-year waiting period. Some countries recognize religious weddings as legally valid, such as in the USA, and so the temple sealing is also the wedding ceremony in those cases. I think it's interesting that the difference in waiting a year or not for a temple sealing following a civil wedding is due entirely to geographical location. If it's an irrevocably decreed law of heaven, why the uneven policy?

Equality

Good point, -Domo-.

I think the reason for it is obvious. In the U.S., where a couple is not required by law to have a civil ceremony before going to the temple, the church uses the temple as extortion to extract tithing funds from family members who want to attend their loved one's wedding. It's a form of control exerted over those who might not otherwise be willing to actively support the church with their time, talents, and treasure.

Lunar Quaker

I also think that the one-year rule is a means of extortion. I don't see any rationale for it. The rule causes more harm than good. It only serves the church, and since most of the folks in SLC don't have immediate family outside of the church, they don't understand the pain that this causes some families.

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